Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
16.06.2025 00:28
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do liberals refuse to define what a woman is and what does that mean for the future of feminism?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If there was only one man remaining on the Earth, would this be regarded as extinction?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.